-22; 13:1-5; Jer 28:15-17; 29:30-32), if someone gives a false "prophecy", shouldnt that disqualify them as a "prophet". If you reference "do not despise prophetic utterances" (1Ths 5:20-21), "prophetic utterences" can refer to spoken revelation from God (Act 11:27, 28; 1Tim 1:18; 4:14) BUT it MOST OFTEN refers to the written Word of Scripture (Mat 13:14; 2Pet 1:19-21; Rev 1:3; 22:7, 10, 18, 19). The instruction is NOT to despise the truth of Gods Word and when it is preached or read it should be received seriosuly.The first appearance of the gift of languages (Acts 2:6-13) in the Bible is clearly the ability to speak or understand languages they have never learned previously. It seems very natural to understand the gift of "tongues" throughout the NT as this same supernatural to speak and understand languages not previously learned. So, why believe that the "gift of languages" is a "private prayer language"?Do you believe there are still Apostles today? If you do, how would you explain that no one today could meet the requirement for Apostles listed in Acts 1:21-22?Email your Bible questions for next month's episode of Ask Dr Mike to [email protected].★ Support this podcast ★